Updated Nov-2025 Test Engine to Practice NetSec-Pro Dumps & Practice Exam
Dumps Collection NetSec-Pro Test Engine Dumps Training With 62 Questions
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which two SSH Proxy decryption profile settings should be configured to enhance the company's security posture? (Choose two.)
- A. Block connections that use non-compliant SSH versions.
- B. Allow sessions when decryption resources are unavailable.
- C. Allow sessions with legacy SSH protocol versions.
- D. Block sessions when certificate validation fails.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Blocking non-compliant SSH versionsandfailing certificate validationsare fundamental security measures:
Block sessions when certificate validation fails
"The SSH Proxy profile should block sessions that fail certificate validation to ensure that only trusted hosts are allowed." (Source: SSH Proxy Decryption Best Practices) Block connections using non-compliant SSH versions Older SSH versions may have vulnerabilities or lack modern encryption algorithms.
"To enforce stronger security, block SSH sessions that use older or deprecated versions of the SSH protocol that do not comply with your security posture." (Source: SSH Decryption and Best Practices) Together, these measuresminimize the risk of MITM attacksand secure SSH traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which two types of logs must be forwarded to Strata Logging Service for IoT Security to function?
(Choose two.)
- A. Threat
- B. WildFire
- C. URL Filtering
- D. Enhanced application
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
For IoT Security toaccurately classify and monitorIoT devices, the following logs must be forwarded to Strata Logging Service:
Enhanced application logs- provide detailed application usage and behaviors, essential for profiling device types and roles.
"Enhanced Application logs provide additional context on IoT device behavior and usage patterns, and must be forwarded to Strata Logging Service for IoT Security to build accurate Device-ID profiles." (Source: IoT Security Logging Requirements) Threat logs- essential for detecting suspicious or malicious activities by IoT devices.
"Threat logs are critical for identifying potential exploits or suspicious activities involving IoT devices and are required for accurate threat visibility within IoT Security." (Source: IoT Security Logs) These logs collectively ensure accurate device classification and real-time threat visibility.
NEW QUESTION # 30
In which two applications can Prisma Access threat logs for mobile user traffic be reviewed? (Choose two.)
- A. Strata Cloud Manager (SCM)
- B. Strata Logging Service
- C. Service connection firewall
- D. Prisma Cloud dashboard
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Threat logs for Prisma Access mobile users can be reviewed in bothStrata Cloud Manager (SCM)andStrata Logging Service. Prisma Cloud and service connection firewalls are not directly tied to mobile user traffic logs.
"Prisma Access logs are available in the Strata Cloud Manager and can also be sent to the Strata Logging Service for detailed analysis and threat visibility." (Source: Prisma Access Administration Guide)
NEW QUESTION # 31
A network administrator obtains Palo Alto Networks Advanced Threat Prevention and Advanced DNS Security subscriptions for edge NGFWs and is setting up security profiles. Which step should be included in the initial configuration of the Advanced DNS Security service?
- A. Create a decryption policy rule to decrypt DNS-over-TLS / port 853 traffic.
- B. Create overrides for all company owned FQDNs.
- C. Configure DNS Security signature policy settings to sinkhole malicious DNS queries.
- D. Enable Advanced Threat Prevention with default settings and only focus on high-risk traffic.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Advanced DNS Securityuses a signature policy tosinkholemalicious DNS queries and prevent them from resolving.
"The DNS Security service integrates with Anti-Spyware profiles, and you must configure signature policy settings to sinkhole malicious queries. This proactively stops traffic to known malicious domains." (Source: Configure DNS Security) Sinkholing ensures that DNS queries to malicious FQDNs are redirected to a safe IP, preventing compromise.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which action is only taken during slow path in the NGFW policy?
- A. SSL/TLS decryption
- B. Session lookup
- C. Layer 2-Layer 4 firewall processing
- D. Security policy lookup
Answer: A
Explanation:
InPalo Alto Networks' Single-Pass Parallel Processing (SP3)architecture, SSL/TLS decryption occurs only during theslow pathwhen the firewall first encounters a new session.
"SSL/TLS decryption, which requires CPU-intensive cryptographic operations, is performed during the slow path when establishing new sessions. Once decrypted, traffic is processed in the fast path for subsequent packets." (Source: Packet Flow and SP3 Architecture) After the initial decryption in the slow path, decrypted traffic is handled by fast path for efficiency.
NEW QUESTION # 33
What key capability distinguishes Content-ID technology from conventional network security approaches?
- A. It relies primarily on reputation-based filtering.
- B. It performs packet header analysis short of deep packet inspection.
- C. It exclusively monitors network traffic volumes.
- D. It provides single-pass application layer inspection for real-time threat prevention.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Content-IDis the core of Palo Alto Networks' prevention architecture, providingsingle-pass application layer inspectionto deliver real-time threat prevention across all traffic.
"Content-ID uses a single-pass architecture to perform application-layer (Layer 7) traffic inspection and real- time threat prevention. Unlike traditional firewalls that rely on multiple scans, Content-ID inspects traffic once to enforce multiple security controls simultaneously." (Source: Content-ID Overview) By consolidating security functions in a single pass, it ensures both efficiency and comprehensive security.
NEW QUESTION # 34
In a Prisma SD-WAN environment experiencing voice quality degradation, which initial action is recommended?
- A. Review real-time analytics of path performance.
- B. Request an RMA of the ION devices.
- C. Immediately modify path quality thresholds.
- D. Switch all VoIP traffic to backup paths.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Voice quality issues in SD-WAN deployments are typically linked to path performance metrics (latency, jitter, packet loss). Reviewingreal-time analyticshelps pinpoint root causes and appropriate mitigation.
"When experiencing performance issues, the first step is to analyze real-time performance data. Prisma SD- WAN provides path quality analytics to identify degradation and ensure informed troubleshooting." (Source: Prisma SD-WAN Monitoring) This data-driven approach avoids unnecessary configuration changes.
NEW QUESTION # 35
How many places will a firewall administrator need to create and configure a custom data loss prevention (DLP) profile across Prisma Access and the NGFW?
- A. One
- B. Two
- C. Three
- D. Four
Answer: A
Explanation:
Palo Alto Networks'Enterprise DLPuses a centralized DLP profile that can be applied consistently across both Prisma Access and NGFWs using Strata Cloud Manager (SCM). This eliminates the need for duplicating efforts across multiple locations.
"Enterprise DLP profiles are created and managed centrally through the Cloud Management Interface and can be used seamlessly across NGFW and Prisma Access deployments." (Source: Enterprise DLP Overview)
NEW QUESTION # 36
How can a firewall administrator block a list of 300 unique URLs in the most time-efficient manner?
- A. Use application groups to block the App-IDs.
- B. Use application filters to block the App-IDs.
- C. Block multiple predefined URL categories.
- D. Import the list into a custom URL category.
Answer: D
Explanation:
For large lists of specific URLs, creating acustom URL categoryand importing the list is the most efficient approach for granular URL filtering.
"You can create custom URL categories to define specific URLs or patterns and enforce policies for these categories. This is the most efficient way to handle large sets of URLs." (Source: Custom URL Categories) This approach saves time compared to manual rule creation or using generic application filters.
NEW QUESTION # 37
What occurs when a security profile group named "default" is created on an NGFW?
- A. It is automatically applied to all new security rules.
- B. It only applies to traffic that has been dropped due to the reset client action.
- C. It allows traffic to bypass all security checks by default.
- D. It negates all existing security profiles rules on new policy.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A security profile group named"default"is automatically applied to all new security rules unless a specific profile group is explicitly configured.
"If a security profile group named 'default' exists, it will be automatically applied to any newly created security policy rules to ensure consistent protection." (Source: Security Profile Groups) This behavior ensures that newly created policies are always protected by default security profiles, minimizing human error.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A network engineer pushes specific Panorama reports of new AI URL category types to branch NGFWs. Which two report types achieve this goal? (Choose two.)
- A. SNMP
- B. CSV export
- C. PDF summary
- D. Custom
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Panorama allows engineers to createcustom reportsand generatePDF summaryformats for consistent reporting across NGFWs.
Custom Reports
"Custom Reports provide tailored reporting based on URL categories, application usage, and threat visibility.
They are generated within Panorama and can include data on newly categorized AI URL types." (Source: Panorama Reports) PDF Summaries
"You can generate PDF summary reports to distribute these insights across branch firewalls, providing an easy-to-read format for compliance and operational review." (Source: Export Reports as PDF) Together, these options provide aconsistent, standardized methodto push insights about AI-based URL categories to branch devices.
NEW QUESTION # 39
A network security engineer needs to implement segmentation but is under strict compliance requirements to place security enforcement as close as possible to the private applications hosted in Azure. Which deployment style is valid and meets the requirements in this scenario?
- A. On a PA-Series NGFW, configure several Layer 2 zones with Layer 2 interfaces assigned to logically segment the network.
- B. On a VM-Series NGFW, configure several Layer 3 zones with Layer 3 interfaces assigned to logically segment the network.
- C. On a PA-Series NGFW, configure several Layer 3 zones with Layer 3 interfaces assigned to logically segment the network.
- D. On a VM-Series NGFW, configure several Layer 2 zones with Layer 2 interfaces assigned to logically segment the network.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In cloud environments like Azure, theVM-Series NGFWis deployed to createLayer 3 segmentation zones closest to the application workloads.
"In Azure, deploy VM-Series firewalls in Layer 3 mode to enforce security policies closest to private applications, meeting strict compliance and segmentation requirements." (Source: VM-Series in Public Clouds) Layer 3 segmentation ensures security policies are enforced at the right boundary to isolate traffic within Azure's virtual networks.
NEW QUESTION # 40
In a service provider environment, what key advantage does implementing virtual systems provide for managing multiple customer environments?
- A. Shared threat prevention policies across all tenants
- B. Centralized authentication for all customer domains
- C. Unified logging across all virtual systems
- D. Logical separation of control and Security policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Virtual systems providelogical separationin a single physical firewall, allowing different customers (or tenants) to have isolatedcontrolandsecurity policies.
"Virtual systems enable service providers to offer logically separated, independent environments on a single firewall. Each virtual system can have its own security policies, interfaces, and administrators." (Source: Virtual Systems) This ensures secure, tenant-specific segmentation within multi-tenant environments.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which two configurations are required when creating deployment profiles to migrate a perpetual VM- Series firewall to a flexible VM? (Choose two.)
- A. Allow only the same security services as the perpetual VM.
- B. Allocate the same number of vCPUs as the perpetual VM.
- C. Choose "Fixed vCPU Models" for configuration type.
- D. Deploy virtual Panorama for management.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
When migrating from aperpetual VM-Series firewall license to a flexible VM licensing model, two critical steps are needed:
Allocate same number of vCPUs- This ensures that the VM-Series capacity remains consistent and avoids resource bottlenecks.
"When migrating perpetual VM-Series licenses to flexible VM licensing, allocate the same vCPU and memory resources to ensure equivalent performance." (Source: VM-Series Flexible Licensing Migration) Limit to same security services- Flexible licensing requires maintaining the same security services to preserve licensing compliance.
"Ensure that you allow only the same security services on the flexible VM instance as were licensed on the perpetual VM." (Source: Flexible Licensing and Service Subscriptions)
NEW QUESTION # 42
How are policies evaluated in the AWS management console when creating a Security policy for a Cloud NGFW?
- A. They must be created in the order they are intended to be evaluated.
- B. The administrator sets a rule priority to determine the order in which they are evaluated.
- C. The administrator sets a rule order to determine the order in which they are evaluated.
- D. They can be dragged up or down the stack as they are evaluated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud NGFW Security Policiesin the AWS Console are evaluated in the exactcreation order- they do not have explicit rule priority fields.
"In AWS, security rules are evaluated in the order they are created. To ensure the correct evaluation logic, create them in the desired order from top to bottom." (Source: Cloud NGFW for AWS Policy Evaluation) Unlike Panorama, AWS-native management of Cloud NGFWs uses creation order as the evaluation sequence.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which action allows an engineer to collectively update VM-Series firewalls with Strata Cloud Manager (SCM)?
- A. Setting a target OS version
- B. Creating a device grouping rule
- C. Creating an update grouping rule
- D. Scheduling software update
Answer: B
Explanation:
Device grouping rulesin SCM allow administrators toorganize firewalls into logical groupsand collectively manage updates or configuration pushes across those groups.
"SCM allows you to create device group rules, enabling streamlined management and collective updates of multiple NGFW instances." (Source: SCM Device Grouping) This approach ensures consistency in software versions and configuration baselines across large deployments.
NEW QUESTION # 44
What must be configured to successfully onboard a Prisma Access remote network using Strata Cloud Manager (SCM)?
- A. GlobalProtect agent
- B. Cloud Identity Engine
- C. IPSec termination node
- D. Autonomous Digital Experience Manager (ADEM)
Answer: C
Explanation:
To connect aremote networkto Prisma Access via Strata Cloud Manager (SCM), the remote network requires anIPSec termination node. This acts as the VPN endpoint, ensuring secure connectivity between branch locations and Prisma Access.
"To onboard a remote network, configure the IPSec termination node on the customer's premises. This VPN endpoint establishes the secure tunnel to Prisma Access for traffic backhauling." (Source: Onboard Remote Networks) Key takeaway:
The IPSec termination node is fundamental for secure, encrypted connectivity.
NEW QUESTION # 45
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